An Open Letter to Marlene McClurkin-Mason Regarding Her Recent Facebook Post on "Missing" Bible Verses
I submitted this letter to Ms. McClurkin-Mason via Facebook Messenger a few moments ago and thought it worth sharing with those of you who may have encountered the same questions she has raised. I commend her for her concern for the precious gift of Holy Scripture, but believe that the misinformation she has shared will ultimately undermine the cause she wishes to uphold. Please read if you are genuinely interested in learning. Dialogue is appreciated, but disrespectful or off-topic posts will be deleted.
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Ma'am,
My wife forwarded your post to me and asked if it were true. I'm a conservative, evangelical pastor with knowledge of the original biblical languages (Greek and Hebrew). I hold fast to the inerrancy and infallibility of Scripture. I'm an MDiv graduate of Trinity Evangelical Divinity School, the seminary of the EFCA.
I would encourage you to read this Wikipedia article regarding the issues you've raised in your post. Likewise, please know that the translators of modern translations such as the NIV and ESV are not trying to pull wool over anyone's eyes. The omissions exist in the hardcopies as well as the electronic copies of the text, and are noted in the footnotes. A good study Bible (like the ESV Study Bible) or scholarly evangelical commentary (e.g., Word Biblical Commentary series, Pillar Commentary series, NICOT/NICNT, BECNT) will walk you through the textual evidence serving as the basis for the translators' decisions.
The simplest answer to your question is that the KJV was translated from a Latin translation of the original Greek and Hebrew manuscripts. Modern translations use the original manuscripts as the basis of their translations, and there are a number (though not significant) of variations between them.
I hope you will follow my advice and conduct some of this research, and publish your findings to your Facebook friends. What you have written is misleading and will only serve to undermine the Gospel and mission of Christ if it is not corrected.
Respectfully,
Matt Stephens
***
Ma'am,
My wife forwarded your post to me and asked if it were true. I'm a conservative, evangelical pastor with knowledge of the original biblical languages (Greek and Hebrew). I hold fast to the inerrancy and infallibility of Scripture. I'm an MDiv graduate of Trinity Evangelical Divinity School, the seminary of the EFCA.
I would encourage you to read this Wikipedia article regarding the issues you've raised in your post. Likewise, please know that the translators of modern translations such as the NIV and ESV are not trying to pull wool over anyone's eyes. The omissions exist in the hardcopies as well as the electronic copies of the text, and are noted in the footnotes. A good study Bible (like the ESV Study Bible) or scholarly evangelical commentary (e.g., Word Biblical Commentary series, Pillar Commentary series, NICOT/NICNT, BECNT) will walk you through the textual evidence serving as the basis for the translators' decisions.
The simplest answer to your question is that the KJV was translated from a Latin translation of the original Greek and Hebrew manuscripts. Modern translations use the original manuscripts as the basis of their translations, and there are a number (though not significant) of variations between them.
I hope you will follow my advice and conduct some of this research, and publish your findings to your Facebook friends. What you have written is misleading and will only serve to undermine the Gospel and mission of Christ if it is not corrected.
Respectfully,
Matt Stephens
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